A 15-year-old presents with a 1-year history of intermittent pain and drainage from the superior gluteal cleft treated with oral antibiotics. On exam, there are three midline pits with a small amount of seropurulent drainage, but no signs of infection. After instituting a shaving regimen and starting LASER hair removal, what is the best next step in management?
a Wide excision with off-midline flap closure
b Incision and drainage with curettage of the sinus tract
c Minimally invasive excision of the pits and sinuses
d Long-term suppressive oral antibiotics
e Wide excision with healing by secondary intention
a Wide excision with off-midline flap closure
b Incision and drainage with curettage of the sinus tract
c Minimally invasive excision of the pits and sinuses
d Long-term suppressive oral antibiotics
e Wide excision with healing by secondary intention